Posted by SLS on June 24, 2005, at 6:49:48
In reply to does Xanax behave like a stimulant in anyone??, posted by NARCOLEPTIC on June 23, 2005, at 19:21:51
Perhaps what you experience is a phenomenon known as disinhibition. This can also happen with alcohol. For some people, instead of numbing the neurons that are excitatory, these drugs work to numb only the neurons that inhibitory (inhibit the excitatory neurons from firing), thus allowing the excitatory neurons to run wild. So too can the person taking the disinhibiting substance.
That's a pretty lame explanation. I hope it makes some sense. Disinhibition is what is known as a paradoxical reaction and occurs in a minority of people. They are just wired differently.
For more details:
http://pb.rcpsych.org/cgi/content/full/26/12/460
After you read it, you can explain it to me!
- Scott
poster:SLS
thread:517670
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20050622/msgs/517912.html