Posted by ed_uk2010 on September 16, 2010, at 13:40:54
In reply to Re: hrguru - Re: Anti-psychotics not mood stabilizers?, posted by Simon Sobo, M.D. on September 15, 2010, at 17:09:09
>I don't have the slightest idea what the true rate is.
Neither do I. Although I don't have any evidence, I get the distinct impression from this website that Bipolar II has become a catch all diagnosis for a wide variety of mood disorders. It seems to include a lot of patients who would have (in years gone by) received diagnoses such as agitated depression, treatment-resistant depression, recurrent depression etc.
I've also noticed that there seems to be a tendency to diagnose antidepressant adverse reactions (or lack of response) as being due to bipolar disorder eg. if an SSRI causes agitation/anxiety, it must be bipolar.
poster:ed_uk2010
thread:960844
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20100908/msgs/962610.html