Posted by laima on February 27, 2007, at 13:18:37
In reply to Re: Drug manufacturing and quality control, posted by notfred on February 27, 2007, at 12:41:26
Yes, seriously, thank you for the clarification. I've had so many pharmacists, and a few others, insist that my perceptions of the differences are imaginary, that the drugs are "exactly the same", that it's a touchy and upsetting topic for me. Some of the pharmacists actually rolled their eyes and sighed dramatically at me even when I politely tried to explain, please, I want the version that was prescribed, they feel very different to me. Yes, very upsetting. So I'm out of the discussion- I'm just too touchy right now- though still gratefully welcome any helpful tips or constructive suggestions anyone might have.And thanks again for your definitions- yes, of course, I can understand that an amphetamine is an amphetamine. Can't disagree. It's those "other factors" which seem to be the difficulty.
> Right, that is the difference between bioequivalency and bioavailability. amphetamine is either amphetamine or it is not, there is no grey area as it is a very specific molecule, as all drugs are. Just because it is the same molecule does not mean both are of equal bioavailability
> and would cause one med to be very different from the other.
poster:laima
thread:735309
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20070224/msgs/736806.html