Posted by linkadge on April 30, 2005, at 8:48:09
In reply to Re: why do antipsychotics have anti-depressant effect?, posted by banga on April 30, 2005, at 8:14:10
Banga explained it fairly well.
The antidepressant effect of SSRI's is thought to be a result of the activation of the possynaptic 5-ht1a receptors.
SSRI's generally raise serotonin at all serotonin receptors including the ones that cause side effects.
For instance 5-ht3 agonism generally causes nausia, and GI disturbance, this can be one symptom of depression as well. AD's like remeron block this receptor and therefore cause less nausia.
So its not really about raising serotonin or lowering serotonin but rather getting it to the right place.
Linkadge
poster:linkadge
thread:491782
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20050428/msgs/491818.html