Posted by linkadge on February 13, 2005, at 10:40:17
In reply to Re: ADDENDUM:// caused temporal lobe seizure?, posted by HappyGirl on February 13, 2005, at 1:05:34
I think it is absolutely nonsence for a doctor to diagnose bipolar based on the fact that an SSRI makes you agitated/activated.
Here's the truth. Not everybody reacts to drugs the same way. For instance. My father is the most stable person alive. If he drinks coffee it can make him very agitated, anxious, insomniac, agrivated etc. He is much more sensitive to coffee than I am.
I can drink loads of cofee and remain normal. Does this mean my father is bipolar ?? Of course not. It is quite simple. Some people are more sensitive to chemicals than others.
If you took a person who was doing well on 150mg of wellbutrin, and you give him 900mg. He might behave a little strange. Become irritable, angry, anxious etc. Some people would reach the same way to 150 mg.
And there is another reason that this method of diagnosis is rediculous. Some people will act very strangly on one antidepressant, and perfectly normal on another.
Ex. Effexor made me *very* irritable. Angry, mood swings, insomnia, panicky, agigated etc. But celexa gave me no problems for 5 years (other than the fact that it pooped out)
To diagnose bipolar you need to do a HECK of a lot more probing as a doctor, than just to see how one chemical makes them react.
Linkadge
poster:linkadge
thread:456517
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20050212/msgs/457121.html