Posted by Dinah on August 30, 2004, at 9:42:33
My sleep study showed a couple of things, like central apnea and very little stage 3-4 sleep, that can be caused by my use of the Klonopin that was prescribed for an anxiety disorder. A large part of that disorder was night-time panic attacks related to my OCD, usually between 3 am and 6 am, 4 am and 6:30 am daylight savings time, at a time (while I'm asleep) when it really isn't as feasible to use CBT techniques to deal with anxiety.
It doesn't seem to make a huge difference what time I go to sleep. The anxiety attacks occur at the same 3 hour or so time period.
When I got the sleep test results, I decided to reduce my Klonopin from 1 mg to 1/2 mg, and I'm back to the same problem. Last night I woke up several times and talked to my dog or husband about work. Once I woke up to find myself halfway across the room, heart pounding, talking about something I needed to do for work. If the issue had been something I wasn't able to readily settle, that's where the panic attacks would occur. Obviously I think or dream about work a lot while I'm asleep. What I wake up saying is usually correct. But what I can't figure out is why those specific hours? What is going on in the sleep cycle that makes it happen in that 3 hour space of time? During the three hours, I always say I'll get up first thing in the morning. But once the three hours pass, I generally sleep to my normal waking time (or later) because it *only* is an issue in those three or so hours.
What is so special about 3 am - 6 am? That's my real question. I can't see anything in my research on sleep structure that account for such a specific timing of anxiety.
My sleep study also showed signs of narcolepsy but wasn't conclusive for narcolepsy.
poster:Dinah
thread:384066
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20040830/msgs/384066.html