Posted by Ponder on June 11, 2003, at 12:15:10
After great results with Lamictal for nearly two years, I am finding the antidepressant properties to be fading. Dosage increases do not seem to help. My question: does the lack of antidepressant effect mean that the stabilizing properties of the drug have faded as well? I know this sounds like a silly question, but some stabilizers don't have much in the way of AD properties to begin with, so it's possible the Lamictal is still delivering some benefits and could provide that necessary stabilizing component in a cocktail if I were to add an AD of some sort. (I'm Bipolar II.)
poster:Ponder
thread:233175
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20030609/msgs/233175.html