Posted by Jack Smith on May 19, 2003, at 16:06:28
Is Remeron the only US approved antidepressant med thats principal method of action is to act as an agonist of seratonin and norepinephrine sites? It seems like all other non-MAOI drugs inhibit the reuptake of seratonin and norepinephrine. And how exactly does an agonist work? Does it just cause receptors to release more seratonin/ne?
JACK
poster:Jack Smith
thread:227711
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20030514/msgs/227711.html