Posted by Ilene on March 11, 2003, at 13:10:51
In reply to Re: For Dr. Bowden: More Q's on BP II, posted by SLS on March 11, 2003, at 6:36:01
> Hi.
>
> Over the last few years, the concept of the existence of a "bipolar spectrum" had been gaining acceptance. Some psychiatrists use the term "soft bipolar" to describe presentations that exhibit bipolarity, but do not qualify as bipolar I, bipolar II, or cyclothymia according to the DSM IV diagnostic manual. One of the biggest proponents of these concepts is Hagop Akiskal, MD. I would recommend doing a Google search using the keywords "Akiskal" and "bipolar" to find out more about this.
>
I already did; Akiskal was a primary source of information. Interesting name. I wonder what ethnic group he comes from.The notion of "soft" bipolarity contributes to the notion that BPII and its relatives are somehow lesser disorders compared to BPI, don't you think?
> Regarding the misdiagnosis of atypical depression for bipolar II, there are some researchers who believe all presentations of atypical depression are actually bipolar depression. I don't believe this is true, as *true* mood reactivity seems to be exclusive to unipolar depression. Bipolar depression most often resembles atypical unipolar depression, as anergia and reverse vegetative symptoms predominate. I would say that mood reactivity would be useful in coming to a differential diagnosis. Speaking for myself, there are times and situations in which I become aroused and more animated, but it does not reduce in the slightest the dementia and anhedonia that are most prominent in my case of bipolar disorder. This is in contrast to atypical depression, where the sufferer reports a temporary lifting of all aspects of depression in reaction to environmental stimuli.
>
>
> - Scott
>
>
Mood reactivity = lifting of *all* aspects of depression? How long is "temporary"?Dementia?
--I.
poster:Ilene
thread:205791
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20030310/msgs/208081.html