Posted by pharmrep on October 3, 2002, at 1:36:27
In reply to Re: Logic and evidence, posted by moxy1000 on October 2, 2002, at 23:31:56
> My understanding of what Dr. Dave is saying is that since Lexapro 10 mg and Celexa 20 mg contain the same amount of the s-isomer, then they would be therapeutically equivalent. But every study done to date shows that Lexapro 10mg is at least as effective as Celexa 40mg, and that is what many people on this board have expressed their experience has been as well.
>
> Just because the s-isomer is proportionally present in both doses, this doesn't make them therapeutically equivalant because that theory does not take into account the presence of the r-isomer in Celexa, which Lexapro dose not possess. The r has been proven to be ineffective in treating depression, but we do not know if it hindered the active agent. (This would probably take a lot of money and time to prove. I don't even know if it's possible to prove scientifically.) No one has clearly proven that it hindered, but many theorize that it must have, since 10mg Lexapro is at least as effective as 40mg Celexa (NOT 20mg) as one would expect.
>** hi there...there are studies that show r-cit doesnt work...(sanchez study). the r-cit can attach to receptor sites not allowing the s-cit to attach, therefore inhibiting metabolization.
ps...i dont know where this 4-to-1 ratio thing is coming from...its not forest. Lexapro is twice at potent as celexa (or any other AD). so yes..10mg lexapro is at least as efficacious as 40mg of celexa. does this mean 15mg=60 or 20mg=80? not necessarily...the math seems that way, but patients so far dont always need more...i know of many 80mg celexa pts doing fine on 10mg lexapro, (or higher doses fo prozac, paxil, zoloft, effexor as well)
poster:pharmrep
thread:109458
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20020930/msgs/122069.html