Posted by MB on September 12, 2001, at 13:07:50
In reply to Re: DXM in Ecstasy, posted by Elizabeth on September 12, 2001, at 5:37:06
> AFAIK, it does not have any "psychotomimetic" effects. "Psychotomimetic" is a word that's been misused a lot to describe hallucinogenic or psychedelic drugs. I think the appropriate term for drugs like DXM and ketamine would be "dissociative."Could we say that amphetamine in high doses is "psychotomimetic" because it induces "psychosis"? I like to use the word "psychotomimetic" because it makes me feel smart (heh heh heh...) but I guess I should only use it when refering to a drug that actual induces psychosis. If someone has latent psychosis, and a drug causes it to manifest, can we say that that drug was psychotomimetic for that person?
poster:MB
thread:78291
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20010907/msgs/78657.html