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Dr. Bob is Robert Hsiung, MD,
bob@dr-bob.orgShown: posts 1 to 2 of 2. This is the beginning of the thread.
Posted by Christ_empowered on August 25, 2016, at 9:28:16
Its "neuroleptic induced deficit syndrome." I get the sense many of us have seen it, some of us have probably experienced it, but...
...how would one know if one is experiencing it? I get concerned, personally, because I"m on a full 30mgs/Abilify. I looked it up, and that roughly = to 8mgs/Haldol or 400mgs/Thorazine. Not low, but...not super high dose tranquilizer therapy, either.
I just wonder...lots of people with mood problems, especially in the bipolar kingdom, are being given neuroleptics. Now, they're talking about how terrible and hard to treat "bipolar depression" is, and how incapacitating it can be. Yes, true, but...what if its the use of AP/AAP drugs that's making depression worse, more frequent, and harder to treat? Same with all this research that's finding some cognitive dysfunction in Bipolar I and Schizophrenia people. Is it the underlying malady, or is it neuroleptic-induced?
Thanks. :-)
Posted by Zyprexa on August 26, 2016, at 22:14:24
In reply to NIDS, posted by Christ_empowered on August 25, 2016, at 9:28:16
I think its the underlying maledy. I never took AD till I got news that my friend had finaly died. I was on APs for years before that and never needed an AD.
This is the end of the thread.
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