Shown: posts 1 to 5 of 5. This is the beginning of the thread.
Posted by Taylor123 on May 13, 2003, at 17:19:01
If a person who encouters steroid-induced psychosis does not recieve a diagnosis of psychotic disorder (and hence get stigmatised -by some uneducated people, with a psyc. disorder)
Why then does AD-induced mania warrant a diagnosis of BPII?
I am aware of the theories of latent activation of BP disorder by AD use, but for myself, I have no Fam history of BP disorder.
This is the thing, it is just a theory.
I don't know why I am so worked up about the diagnosis, but I guess it's because it has ramifications and repurcussions (need spell check?!) for my job.
Does anyone have any thoughts?
Thanx for your ideas / info/ thoughts
Best wishes
Taylor
Posted by MelD on May 13, 2003, at 17:44:29
In reply to QUESTION... OPINIONS?, posted by Taylor123 on May 13, 2003, at 17:19:01
AD induced mania is often an indication of BPII. The correct dx is BPIII.
Posted by linkadge on May 13, 2003, at 18:10:45
In reply to QUESTION... OPINIONS?, posted by Taylor123 on May 13, 2003, at 17:19:01
Just say you're unipolar, and that
you are, you don't have to tell them
about the additional diagnosis of the
other pole.
Linkadge :)
Posted by David Smith on May 14, 2003, at 22:20:22
In reply to Re: QUESTION... OPINIONS?, posted by linkadge on May 13, 2003, at 18:10:45
> Just say you're unipolar, and that
> you are, you don't have to tell them
> about the additional diagnosis of the
> other pole.
> Linkadge :)
And you may want to keep an eye on your medical records. If your docotr is aware of your concerns she/he may be able to assist you in your efforts to keep your position.
Posted by Snoozy on May 14, 2003, at 22:34:16
In reply to QUESTION... OPINIONS?, posted by Taylor123 on May 13, 2003, at 17:19:01
This is the end of the thread.
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